LeoMath

Foundations of calculus

Mean value theorem

The overall average rate of change is attained at some instant; Rolle → Lagrange, and why no hypothesis can be dropped.

about 5 min

Start from a problem

Problem

A car covers 200 km in two hours: average speed 100 km/h. Can you assert that at some instant the speedometer read exactly 100?

Intuition says yes: slower than 100 the whole way and you never reach 200 km; faster the whole way and you overshoot. Speed varies continuously, so it must pass through 100. But "intuition says yes" is not a proof. We need a theorem that connects "overall average" to "some single instant" precisely.

Observe

Fix the point x0x_0 below and make hh large: the secant joins two endpoints. The mean value theorem says the tangent somewhere in between is parallel to that secant. Try a few functions and hunt for that place.

Interactive experimentSecant becomes tangent
Function
f(x0+h)−f(x0)h\frac{f(x_0+h)-f(x_0)}{h}secant slope -0.0275tangent slope f′(x₀) 0.5403gap 0.5678
Conjecture

If ff is "nice enough" on [a,b][a,b] (continuous, differentiable), there is ξ∈(a,b)\xi\in(a,b) with f′(ξ)=f(b)−f(a)b−a.f'(\xi)=\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}. Strategy for the proof: reduce to the special case of equal endpoint values, where all we need is an extremum.

Theorems and proofs

Theorem 3.1Rolle's theorem

Let ff be continuous on [a,b][a,b], differentiable on (a,b)(a,b), with f(a)=f(b)f(a)=f(b). Then there is ξ∈(a,b)\xi\in(a,b) with f′(ξ)=0f'(\xi)=0.

Proof

A continuous function on a closed interval attains a maximum MM and a minimum mm (extreme value theorem). If M=mM=m, ff is constant and any ξ\xi works. Otherwise at least one of M,mM,m differs from f(a)=f(b)f(a)=f(b) and is attained at an interior point ξ∈(a,b)\xi\in(a,b); say f(ξ)=Mf(\xi)=M. For small hh, f(ξ+h)≤f(ξ)f(\xi+h)\le f(\xi), so f(ξ+h)−f(ξ)h≤0 (h>0),f(ξ+h)−f(ξ)h≥0 (h<0).\frac{f(\xi+h)-f(\xi)}{h}\le0\ (h>0),\qquad\frac{f(\xi+h)-f(\xi)}{h}\ge0\ (h<0). Taking limits (the one-sided limits agree because ff is differentiable at ξ\xi) gives f′(ξ)≤0f'(\xi)\le0 and f′(ξ)≥0f'(\xi)\ge0, hence f′(ξ)=0f'(\xi)=0.

The heart of this step: the derivative vanishes at an interior extremum. That is Fermat's lemma.

Theorem 3.2Lagrange's mean value theorem

Let ff be continuous on [a,b][a,b] and differentiable on (a,b)(a,b). Then there is ξ∈(a,b)\xi\in(a,b) with f′(ξ)=f(b)−f(a)b−a.f'(\xi)=\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}.

Proof

The secant through the endpoints is ℓ(x)=f(a)+f(b)−f(a)b−a(x−a),\ell(x)=f(a)+\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}(x-a), whose derivative is the constant average slope m=f(b)−f(a)b−am=\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}. Put g(x)=f(x)−ℓ(x)g(x)=f(x)-\ell(x). Then gg is continuous on [a,b][a,b], differentiable on (a,b)(a,b), and since the secant passes through both endpoints, g(a)=g(b)=0g(a)=g(b)=0. Rolle gives ξ\xi with g′(ξ)=0g'(\xi)=0, i.e. f′(ξ)−m=0f'(\xi)-m=0.

The chain: build the secant → subtract it → equal endpoints → Rolle → conclusion. The entire trick is "subtract the secant".

Which hypothesis cannot be dropped

Example 3.1Not differentiable: f(x) = |x|

On [−1,1][-1,1] the secant slope is 00, but f′f' takes only the values −1-1 and 11, and ff is not differentiable at 00. No ξ\xi satisfies the conclusion. Differentiability on the open interval cannot be dropped.

Example 3.2Discontinuous at an endpoint

Let f(x)=xf(x)=x for 0≤x<10\le x<1 and f(1)=2f(1)=2. The secant slope is 22; the interior derivative is identically 11. Continuity at the endpoints cannot be dropped, even at a single point.

Common mistake

ξ\xi exists, but the theorem says nothing about where it is, how many there are, or how to find it. Never treat ξ\xi as a quantity you can solve for; the theorem's value lies in estimates: ∣f(b)−f(a)∣≤max⁡∣f′∣⋅∣b−a∣|f(b)-f(a)|\le\max|f'|\cdot|b-a|.

Applications

ApplicationZero derivative means constant

If f′≡0f'\equiv0 on an interval II, then for any a<ba<b in II, f(b)−f(a)=f′(ξ)(b−a)=0f(b)-f(a)=f'(\xi)(b-a)=0. This corollary is used in part II of the fundamental theorem in The integral and in the uniqueness proof for y′=kyy'=ky in What is an ODE. Without the mean value theorem both proofs are empty.

ApplicationMonotonicity test

f′>0f'>0 on (a,b)(a,b) implies ff is strictly increasing: for x1<x2x_1<x_2, f(x2)−f(x1)=f′(ξ)(x2−x1)>0f(x_2)-f(x_1)=f'(\xi)(x_2-x_1)>0.

ApplicationTaylor's theorem

The Lagrange-remainder proof in Taylor expansion is Rolle's theorem applied n+1n+1 times to a carefully built function.

Remark

The mean value theorem is the bridge from local information to global behaviour: knowing the derivative at every point controls the difference of function values between any two points. Nearly every statement of the form "a property of f′f' implies a property of ff" rests on it.

Exercises

01
For f(x)=x3f(x)=x^3 on [0,2][0,2], find ξ∈(0,2)\xi\in(0,2) with f′(ξ)=f(2)−f(0)2−0f'(\xi)=\dfrac{f(2)-f(0)}{2-0} (three decimals).
02
For f(x)=∣x∣f(x)=|x| on [−1,1][-1,1] the secant slope is 00, yet no point has derivative 00. Which hypothesis of the mean value theorem fails?